Skip to Content
 

Top 100 Atheist Challenges

Why does Matthew quote a prophecy about Jesus being a Nazarene (2:23), when such a reference does not actually exist in the Old Testament?

At many other times throughout the Old Testament, a statement is said to originate from the prophets even though the statement referred to is not found in any of the prior prophets.  Examples of this are found in Jeremiah 4:44 and Ezra 9:10-11.  What appears to be going on here is that the author is presenting summary statements of the teaching of the prophets, though the precise wording of the summary is not itself present in the writings of those particular prophets.  However, one may still wonder what the reference to being a Nazarene actually refers to since this is not at all presaged in the Old Testament.   Here one might suppose that this has to do with Jesus being lowly and of no great earthly repute, just as Nazareth was viewed during that time (see John 1:49).


You may also be interested in Three "Weird" Fulfillments in Matthew