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Top 100 Atheist Challenges

Given that we don’t have the original manuscripts, why would God have allowed variant readings to creep into the textual tradition?

IF he inspired the original authors, doesn’t it stand to reason that he would have inspired the copyists as well? What reason could he possibly have for doing one and not the other?

 

Given that even a skeptic no less an authority than Bart Ehrman admits that the current textual tradition is sufficient to yield knowledge as to the contents of the original (and that the two agree in every significant point), the burden of proof is on the skeptic to show why God would need to completely preserve the copies in this way.